R. Shimon ben Pazzi
said: "From where is it derived that the translator (of the Torah reading)
is not permitted to raise his voice above that of the reader? For it is stated (Exodus 19:19): 'Moses would
speak and G-d would respond to him with a voice'. The words 'with a voice are
redundant, so what do they teach: 'with a voice (equal in volume to that) of
Moses."
Tosfos points out in the name of the Rif that presumably
Moses when translating spoke at the top of his voice so he could be heard by
the whole people. Since G-d was speaking only to Moses one might have expected
the volume to be different; that it wasn't, shows us that there must be an
obligation on the translator to match his volume to that of the reader.
However, the Maharsha suggests that it was Moshe who was
reading in Hebrew and that it was G-d who was translating into the 70 languages
(see Gemara Shabbos 78b where it says each and every word which issued from the
mouth of HKBH split into 70 languages). In consequence, the proof would be that
despite the fact that G-d was talking to everyone and Moses only to G-d, HKBH
kept His voice at the same lower volume used by Moses.
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